PPSC English Lecturer Solved Paper 2020

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Author: Nasir Iqbal | Assistant Professor of English Literature

PPSC English Lecturer Solved Paper 2020
Updated on: October 26, 2025
Estimated Reading Time: 32 min

🡆 PPSC English Lecturer Exam Guide

PPSC Lecturer English Paper 2020 Analysis

This analysis categorizes all 100 available questions, showing you exactly which areas to prioritize in your studies, from literature and linguistics to the general knowledge section.

English Subject Section: 80 Questions

General Knowledge Section: 20 Questions

 

Part 1: English Subject (80 Questions)

This primary section is divided into four key areas: Literature, Linguistics, Literary History, and Grammar/Vocabulary.

Literature (45 Questions)

This was the largest component, testing core knowledge of English literary history, major works, genres, and authors.

Novel: 17 Questions

Topics: Questions covered R.K. Narayan’s settings, D.H. Lawrence’s psychological themes, Emily Brontë’s sole novel, and George Eliot’s real name.

James Joyce’s narrative techniques, authors of specific novels (e.g., The Spy and Uncle Tom’s Cabin), and character analysis across various works.

Poetry: 15 Questions

Topics: This included the pictorial qualities of Keats and Tennyson, Lord Byron’s place in the Romantic era, and Spenser’s influence on later poets.

Authorship of famous lines and poems (e.g., Donne’s “Holy Sonnets”), analysis of poetic forms, and literary circles like the Auden Group.

Drama: 7 Questions

Topics: Tested knowledge of the characteristics of Restoration plays, the total number of Shakespeare’s plays, and the Pre-Shakespearean University Wits.

Characters from famous plays by Ibsen and Marlowe, and the authorship of modern plays like “The Glass Menagerie.”

Criticism & Theory: 6 Questions

Topics: Focused on foundational texts like Wordsworth’s “Preface to Lyrical Ballads,” definitions of literary terms such as Wit,

Concepts in Postcolonial theory, and famous critical judgments by figures like Dr. Samuel Johnson.

Linguistics (23 Questions)

This was the second-largest section, covering the scientific and systematic study of language.

Topics: Questions spanned multiple branches, including Phonetics & Phonology (e.g., fricatives, nasals, bilabials).

Language Acquisition (e.g., cooing, phonological processes), Semantics & Etymology (e.g., definitions of syntax, collocation, and word origins).

Sociolinguistics (e.g., pragmatics), and the History of English (e.g., its Germanic roots).

Literature History (7 Questions)

This area focuses on the crucial historical and intellectual contexts that shaped English literature.

Topics: This included the timeline of the Renaissance, key figures of humanism such as Erasmus, and the historical impact of the movable-type printing press.

The Victorian-era Oxford Movement, the English Reformation, and the history of medieval book preservation.

Grammar & Vocabulary (5 Questions)

This short section focused on the direct, practical application of English-language rules.

Topics: Included one question each on prepositions and sentence structure, as well as vocabulary tests on antonyms, synonyms, and idiomatic expressions.

Part 2: General Knowledge Section (20 Questions)

This section (Questions 81-100) tested a broad range of topics outside the core English syllabus.

Current Affairs, World Geography (8 Questions)

Topics included the author of “The Pandemic Century,” the origin of Qantas, the location of Panama, sports terminology, and basic math problems.

General Science & IT (6 Questions)

Topics covered the discovery of DNA structure, the invention of the transistor, facts about carnivorous plants, types of sedimentary rocks, and MS Word shortcut keys.

Pakistan Affairs (2 Questions)

Topics focused on the oath-taking of the 15th National Assembly and the coldest city in Pakistan.

Islamic Studies (2 Questions)

Included questions on the Charter of Medina and key figures in Islamic history.

Urdu (2 Questions)

Tested knowledge of Urdu grammar (identifying “فی صد”) and the meaning of an idiom (“کالے کوسوں”).


PPSC English Lecturer Paper 2020

Q. 1. Please do not laugh _____ those beggars.

A. For
B. Against
C. At
D. From

C. At
The preposition “at” is used with “laugh” to indicate the target of the laughter.

Q. 2. Sounds usually associated with letters such as f, s, v, z, in which the air passes through a narrow constriction that causes the air to flow turbulently and thus create a noisy sound, are called:

A. Plosives
B. Fricatives
C. Allophones
D. Allophonic

B. Fricatives
Fricatives are consonants produced by forcing air through a narrow channel, creating friction.

Q. 3. Normal phonological deviations that children make when producing sounds and words are referred to as:

A. Speech errors
B. Jargon
C. Phonological processes
D. Phonotactics

C. Phonological processes
These are predictable, rule-based patterns that young children use to simplify adult speech.

Q. 4. Choose the correct antonym of “Grotesque:”

A. Vicious
B. Criminal
C. Whimsical
D. Mild

D. Mild
Grotesque means strange and unpleasant, while mild means gentle and not severe.

Q. 5. There was a great hue and cry against Hardy’s novels, Tess and Jude the Obscure because of _____ in them.

A. Obscenity
B. Vices
C. Abnormality
D. Heresy

A. Obscenity
Hardy’s novels challenged Victorian morality with their frank treatment of sexuality and social issues.

Q. 6. Restoration Period saw the use of:

A. Heroic Tragedy
B. Classical Tragedy
C. Domestic Tragedy
D. Shakespearean Tragedy

A. Heroic Tragedy
Heroic tragedy, with its themes of love and honor, was a prominent genre during the Restoration.

Q. 7. Most of the novels of R. K. Narayan are set in:

A. Madras
B. Malgudi
C. Trivandrum
D. Mano Majra

B. Malgudi
Malgudi is the famous fictional town in South India featured in many of R. K. Narayan’s stories.

Q. 8. In the “Preface to Lyrical Ballads,” Wordsworth propounded his theory of:

A. Fancy
B. Imagination
C. Poetic Diction
D. Poetic Diction

C. Poetic Diction
Wordsworth argued that poetry should use the “real language of men” rather than artificial poetic language.

Q. 9. What is the most common poetic quality in Keats and Tennyson?

A. Miltonism
B. Dramatic quality
C. Pictorial element
D. Elegiac nature

C. Pictorial element
Both poets are known for their rich, descriptive imagery that creates vivid pictures in the reader’s mind.

Q. 10. Which of the following terms are assigned to the 13 properties identified by Hockett (1960)?

A. Linguistic Universals
B. Passive Scripts
C. Universal Scripts
D. Linguistic nodes

A. Linguistic Universals
Hockett’s “design features” describe properties that are considered universal to all human languages.

Q. 11. When the baby is three months old s/he can produce velar sounds /k/, /g/ and vowels /i/ and /u/, this stage is known as:

A. Babbling
B. Holophrastic
C. Cooing
D. Telegraphic

C. Cooing
Cooing is an early stage of language development that precedes the more complex consonant-vowel combinations of babbling.

Q. 12. How many plays did William Shakespeare write?

A. 36
B. 37
C. 38
D. 39

C. 38
The commonly accepted number of plays written by Shakespeare is 38, though the exact count can vary slightly among scholars.

Q. 13. Who was the main contributor to the linguistic period?

A. Bartlett
B. Piaget
C. Hermann Paul
D. Chomsky

D. Chomsky
Noam Chomsky’s theories on generative grammar revolutionized the field of linguistics in the mid-20th century.

Q. 14. “Close Shave” means:

A. Fine’s breadth
B. By the skin of one’s teeth
C. Narrow escape
D. To apply the economy

C. Narrow escape
This idiom refers to a situation where one barely avoids danger or a negative outcome.

Q. 15. Lord Byron belongs to _____ age.

A. Romantic
B. Victorian
C. Transition
D. Edwardian

A. Romantic
Lord Byron was one of the leading figures of the second generation of English Romantic poets.

Q. 16. “Marlowe simply prepared the way for the master who was to follow.” Who is the master referred to in this remark?

A. Ben Jonson
B. Shakespeare
C. John Webster
D. Thomas Middleton

B. Shakespeare
Christopher Marlowe’s innovations in blank verse and tragic drama heavily influenced his contemporary, William Shakespeare.

Q. 17. Two words with very closely related meanings:

A. Antonyms
B. Homonyms
C. Synonyms
D. Hyponymy

C. Synonyms
Synonyms are words that have the same or nearly the same meaning as another word (e.g., happy and joyful).

Q. 18. Aurobindo Ghose’s Savitri is an epic of the:

A. Universe
B. Soul
C. Mind
D. Heaven

B. Soul
Savitri: A Legend and a Symbol is a vast epic poem about the spiritual journey and transformation of the soul.

Q. 19. In which novel of his Lawrence dealt with the psychological phenomenon known as “Oedipus Complex”?

A. Lady Chatterly’s Lover
B. Sons and Lovers
C. The Trespasser
D. The Boy in the Bush

B. Sons and Lovers
The novel famously explores the intense and possessive relationship between Paul Morel and his mother.

Q. 20. What is meant by “etymology”?

A. The study of the sounds of a language
B. The study of the way words are combined
C. The study of language
D. The study of the origin and history of words

D. The study of the origin and history of words
Etymology is the branch of linguistics concerned with the historical development of words.

Q. 21. The study of the way words and sentences are given meaning to is:

A. The study of the origin of words
B. The study of how words changed over time
C. The study of the origin of languages
D. The study of words which sound similar to one another

A. The study of the origin of words
This question is poorly phrased, but it is likely referring to semantics, which is the study of meaning in language.

Q. 22. “The Old Wives’ Tale is a novel by:

A. H. G. Wells
B. Arnold Bennett
C. Stale Affairs
D. John Galsworthy

B. Arnold Bennett
The Old Wives’ Tale (1908) is considered the masterpiece of the English novelist Arnold Bennett.

Q. 23. “His verse is sensuous and passionate and at its best simple, thus according with Milton’s famous definition.” About whom has this been said?

A. Emerson
B. Oliver Wendell Holmes
C. Fenimore Cooper
D. Walt Whitman

D. Walt Whitman
Walt Whitman’s poetry is known for its passionate, physical, and sensory engagement with the world.

Q. 24. In a list of languages ranked by number of native (L1) speakers, where does English stand?

A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th

C. 3rd
Mandarin Chinese and Spanish have more native speakers than English, but English has the most total speakers worldwide.

Q. 25. Who wrote, “Milton, thou shouldst be living at this hour”?

A. Shelley
B. Keats
C. Gray
D. Wordsworth

D. Wordsworth
This is the famous opening line of William Wordsworth’s sonnet “London, 1802.”

Q. 26. Emily Brontë wrote only one novel entitled:

A. Jane Eyre
B. The Tenant of Wildfell Hall
C. Wuthering Heights
D. Agnes Grey

C. Wuthering Heights
Wuthering Heights is the only novel by Emily Brontë; Jane Eyre was written by her sister Charlotte.

Q. 27. The Faerie Queene is a/an _____ poem.

A. Satirical
B. Allegorical
C. Descriptive
D. Tract

B. Allegorical
Edmund Spenser’s epic poem is a complex allegory where characters represent different virtues and vices.

Q. 28. George Eliot is the pen-name of:

A. Bifor Evans
B. Mary Ann Evans
C. T.S. Eliot
D. Emily Dickinson

B. Mary Ann Evans
Mary Ann Evans used a male pen name to ensure her works were taken seriously in the 19th century.

Q. 29. An intellectually amusing utterance calculated to delight and surprise is called:

A. Serendipitude
B. Wit
C. Paradox
D. Tract

B. Wit
Wit is a form of intelligent humor, the ability to say or write things that are clever and usually funny.

Q. 30. The sound made with air passing through the nose and making the “ng” sound of “sing” is called:

A. Nasal
B. Velar
C. Uvular
D. Bilabial

A. Nasal
This sound is technically a “velar nasal,” made at the back of the mouth (velum) with air passing through the nose.

Q. 31. Who translated the original Bengali poems of the Geetanjali into English?

A. Sir Edmund Gosse
B. W. B. Yeats
C. Rev. Edmund Thompson
D. Rabindranath Tagore

D. Rabindranath Tagore
Tagore translated his own work into English prose poems, which won him the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913.

Q. 32. What was the name given to the poets of the Auden Group?

A. New Signatures
B. New Lines
C. New Romantics
D. New Apocalypses

A. New Signatures
The Auden Group poets were first published together in an influential 1932 anthology called New Signatures.

Q. 33. Edgar Allen Poe wrote reviews for a year for the magazine:

A. Northern American Message
B. Evening Post
C. Southern American Review
D. The Autobiography

C. Southern American Review
Poe was a famously harsh literary critic for the Southern Literary Messenger (closest option is C).

Q. 34. What was a new system of printing books developed in the 1400s?

A. Block Style Writing
B. Movable Type
C. Calligraphy
D. Computer

B. Movable Type
Johannes Gutenberg’s invention of the printing press with movable type revolutionized the world.

Q. 35. Deductive method proceeds from:

A. Law and rule to observation
B. Observation
C. Generalization to specification
D. Examples and illustrations

A. Law and rule to observation
Deductive reasoning starts with a general principle or law and applies it to a specific case to reach a conclusion.

Q. 36. Holy Sonnets was written by:

A. Marlowe
B. Donne
C. Spencer
D. Johnson

B. Donne
John Donne, a leading Metaphysical poet, wrote this famous sequence of religious sonnets.

Q. 37. Sarojini Naidu’s poem The Queen’s Rival is based on a _____ legend.

A. Chinese
B. Persian
C. French
D. Roman

B. Persian
The poem is inspired by a story from the Persian poet Firdausi’s epic, the Shahnameh.

Q. 38. The word “Novel” is derived from the Italian word:

A. Novella
B. Novelle
C. Novelas
D. Novali

A. Novella
“Novella” is an Italian word for a short tale or a new story, from which we get the word “novel.”

Q. 39. The name of the technique employed by James Joyce in his novels is:

A. Oblique narrative
B. Stream of Consciousness
C. First person narrative
D. Naturalism

B. Stream of Consciousness
Joyce was a pioneer of this modernist technique, which attempts to represent a character’s unfiltered thoughts.

Q. 40. An Anglo-Saxon heroic poetry, what is the fate of those who fail to observe the sacred duty of blood vengeance?

A. Banishment
B. Everlasting shame
C. Conversion to Christianity
D. Death and dishonor

B. Everlasting shame
In the heroic code of poems like Beowulf, failing to avenge one’s kin was the greatest dishonor.

Q. 41. Who was the leading figure of Christian humanism?

A. Sir Thomas More
B. Martin Luther
C. John Tetzel
D. Erasmus

D. Erasmus
Desiderius Erasmus was a Dutch philosopher and a key scholar of the Northern Renaissance who sought to reform the Catholic Church.

Q. 42. The collective name given to some of pre-Shakespearean playwrights, like Marlowe, Kyd, Peele, and Greene is:

A. Fantastic Playwrights
B. University Wits
C. Elizabethan dramatists
D. Court Playwrights

B. University Wits
This was a group of late 16th-century playwrights and pamphleteers who were educated at Oxford and Cambridge.

Q. 43. What is the time period from 1500-1660 in Europe called?

A. The Era of Good Feelings
B. The Revolution of Thought
C. The Renaissance
D. The Scientific Explosion

C. The Renaissance
This period saw a “rebirth” of art, literature, and learning based on classical models.

Q. 44. Name the poet who belongs to the Victorian age, but is modern in matters of technique:

A. Swinburne
B. Rossetti
C. Hopkins
D. Hardy

C. Hopkins
Gerard Manley Hopkins’s experimental use of rhythm (“sprung rhythm”) made him a major influence on modernist poets.

Q. 45. Linde in Ibsen’s A Doll’s House provides a sub-plot by her relations with Krogstad and she serves a foil and model to _____ who recognizes through her that a woman is entitled to her own judgment and independent thought.

A. Gina
B. Rebecca
C. Nora
D. Hedda

C. Nora
Mrs. Linde’s practical independence provides a contrast to Nora’s initial dependence and foreshadows Nora’s own awakening.

Q. 46. The Glass Menagerie is a play by:

A. Eugene O’ Neill
B. Tennessee Williams
C. Arthur Miller
D. Tennyson

B. Tennessee Williams
The Glass Menagerie is a famous “memory play” by the American playwright Tennessee Williams.

Q. 47. Faustus asks two magicians to aid him in summoning the devil. What are their names?

A. Valdes and Cornelius
B. Rosencrantz and Guildenstern
C. Troilus and Cressida
D. Pyramus and Thisbe

A. Valdes and Cornelius
These two friends encourage Faustus’s turn to black magic and instruct him in the art of conjuring.

Q. 48. Which of these terms refer to the study of speech process?

A. Phonology
B. Phonetics
C. Phonetics
D. Semantics

B. Phonetics
Phonetics is the branch of linguistics that studies the physical production and perception of speech sounds.

Q. 49. Maya is the central character in Anita Desai’s novel:

A. Bye, Bye, Blackbird
B. Voices in the City
C. Cry, the Peacock
D. A Goddess Named Gold

C. Cry, the Peacock
Cry, the Peacock focuses on the psychological turmoil of its main character, Maya.

Q. 50. Choose the correct synonym of “Circumvent”

A. Befall
B. Seriosity
C. Avoid
D. Reform

C. Avoid
To circumvent means to find a way around an obstacle or difficulty.

Q. 51. Mastropieri and Turkwitz (1999) identified that a newborn could differentiate between what?

A. Between speech patterns
B. Between native and foreign languages
C. Between parents’ voices
D. Between tone and pitch

B. Between native and foreign languages
Studies show that infants can distinguish between the sounds of their native language and a foreign one.

Q. 52. Bilal has a very advanced sense of what is socially appropriate. He always knows what to say in every social context. He has which kind of linguistic competence?

A. Pragmatic
B. Semantic
C. Pragmatic
D. Syntactic

A. Pragmatic
Pragmatics is the study of how context contributes to meaning; knowing what to say in different social situations.

Q. 53. Francis Bacon’s essays are:

A. Didactic
B. Objective
C. Beside
D. Over

A. Didactic
Bacon’s essays are didactic, meaning they are intended to teach, particularly about moral and practical subjects.

Q. 54. Who is the real name of George Orwell?

A. William Hazlitt
B. Eric Blair
C. Tom Scott
D. Winston Smith

B. Eric Blair
George Orwell was the pen name of the English novelist and essayist Eric Arthur Blair.

Q. 55. “The Golden Breath” is a _____ by Mulk Raj Anand.

A. Essay
B. Short story
C. Play
D. Work of Literary Criticism

D. Work of Literary Criticism
The Golden Breath: Studies in Five Poets of the New India is a work of literary criticism by Anand.

Q. 56. The postcolonial literature includes:

A. The new cultural history
B. Travelogues
C. Biographies
D. Autobiographies

D. Autobiographies
Postcolonial literature often includes autobiographies that explore themes of identity, culture, and colonialism.

Q. 57. The English romantic poet who was most influenced by Spencer, is:

A. Byron
B. Scott
C. Keats
D. Shelley

C. Keats
John Keats was deeply influenced by the rich, sensuous verse of the Elizabethan poet Edmund Spenser.

Q. 58. Choose the correct sentence.

A. He was shocked when she told him what she called her last night.
B. He was shocked when she told him when she called her last night.
C. He told him what she called her last night he was shocked.
D. He was shocked when that she told him what she called her last night.

A. He was shocked when she told him what she called her last night.
This sentence is grammatically correct and clearly structured, unlike the other options.

Q. 59. Cyclone in Pakistan is a celebrated work by:

A. Monika Varma
B. Jamila Nishat
C. Mamta Kalia
D. Marra Kaka

A. Monika Varma
Monika Varma is an Indian poet known for works that often engage with nature and emotion.

Q. 60. “Uncle Tom’s Cabin” is written by:

A. Cotton Mather
B. Sarah Orne Jewett
C. Harriet Beecher Stowe
D. Willa Cather

C. Harriet Beecher Stowe
This influential anti-slavery novel was written by the American abolitionist Harriet Beecher Stowe.

Q. 61. Who is the creator of the character named Sherlock Holmes?

A. Edgar Allen Poe
B. Agatha Christie
C. Arthur Conan Doyle
D. John Lehmann

C. Arthur Conan Doyle
Sir Arthur Conan Doyle created the famous detective Sherlock Holmes in a series of stories and novels.

Q. 62. The Oxford Movement is a novel by:

A. F. R. Leavis
B. John Keble
C. Anthony Trollope
D. Virginia Woolf

B. John Keble
(Correction Note: The Oxford Movement was a religious movement, not a novel. John Keble was a leader of the movement).

Q. 63. Which of the following was a group that tried to spread Catholic teaching after the Reformation?

A. The Anabaptists
B. The Baptists
C. The Protestants
D. The Calvinists

A. The Anabaptists
(Note: This is historically complex. The Counter-Reformation was the main Catholic effort. Anabaptists were a radical Reformation group, not Catholic.)

Q. 64. Fielding’s novels are called:

A. Picaresque novels
B. Sentimental novels
C. Comic epic in prose
D. Realistic novels

C. Comic epic in prose
Henry Fielding famously described his novel Joseph Andrews as a “comic epic poem in prose.”

Q. 65. What is defined as “The study of sentence structure”?

A. Morphology
B. Semantics
C. Phonology
D. Syntax

D. Syntax
Syntax is the branch of linguistics that deals with the rules governing how words are combined to form grammatical sentences.

Q. 66. Keats died of:

A. Cancer
B. Pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Malaria

C. Tuberculosis
The Romantic poet John Keats died of tuberculosis in Rome at the young age of 25.

Q. 67. “Old Norse” is almost the same as which modern Scandinavian language?

A. Danish
B. Norwegian
C. Icelandic
D. Swedish

C. Icelandic
Due to its isolation, Modern Icelandic has changed the least from Old Norse, the language of the Vikings.

Q. 68. Grammar-Translation Method focuses on:

A. Accuracy
B. Fluency
C. Appropriateness
D. Listening skill

A. Accuracy
This traditional language-teaching method emphasizes the correct translation of texts and understanding of grammatical rules.

Q. 69. Developing phonological awareness means that:

A. Teachers must require students to practice their pronunciation every day
B. Students solely become aware of how their accents are, which motivates them to practice pronunciation drills
C. Students gain an understanding of the place and manner of articulation when pronouncing words
D. Teachers should not overtly correct students’ pronunciation errors in order not to raise their Student Affective Filter low

C. Students gain an understanding of the place and manner of articulation when pronouncing words
Phonological awareness involves recognizing and manipulating the sound structure of spoken language.

Q. 70. Speakers learn how to participate in conversation. Conversational exchanges can be viewed as _____ (describes how people normally behave in conversation).

(A) Coherence
(B) Cohesion
(C) Co-operative
(D) Conversation

(C) Co-operative
The co-operative principle, proposed by philosopher Paul Grice, suggests that participants in a conversation normally cooperate to communicate effectively.

Q. 71. Who were the original speakers of English?

A. The Angles, Celts, and Jutes
B. The Angles, Saxons, and Jutes
C. The Angles, Saxons, and Celts
D. The Angles, Saxons, and Celts

B. The Angles, Saxons, and Jutes
These three Germanic tribés migrated to Britain in the 5th century, and their dialects formed the basis of Old English.

Q. 72. Arundhati Roy has been awarded the Booker’s Prize on her novel:

A. The Man who failed
B. The God of Small Things
C. The Apes of God
D. The Nude Before God

B. The God of Small Things
Arundhati Roy won the Booker Prize for her debut novel, The God of Small Things, in 1997.

Q. 73. Who called Dryden the father of English Criticism?

A. Pope
B. Doctor Johnson
C. DeQuincey
D. Coleridge

B. Doctor Johnson
Samuel Johnson gave this title to John Dryden in recognition of his influential literary essays and prefaces.

Q. 74. _____ is the writer of The Spy and is regarded as “the first of the great American novelists.”

A. Washington Irving
B. James Fenimore Cooper
C. Nathaniel Hawthorne
D. Edgar Allen Poe

B. James Fenimore Cooper
James Fenimore Cooper, author of The Last of the Mohicans, is often considered the first major American novelist.

Q. 75. _____ are consonants for which the flow of air is stopped or restricted by lips.

A. Plosives
B. Africates
C. Glottal
D. Bilabial

D. Bilabial
Bilabial sounds, like /p/, /b/, and /m/, are produced using both lips.

Q. 76. To which language group does English belong?

A. Romance
B. Germanic
C. Celtic
D. American

B. Germanic
English is a West Germanic language, sharing roots with languages like German, Dutch, and Frisian.

Q. 77. The title of Sir Philip Sidney’s pastoral romance in prose is:

A. Arcadia
B. Astrophel
C. Hydriotaphia
D. Lamia

A. Arcadia
The Countess of Pembroke’s Arcadia, or simply Arcadia, is a famous prose work by the Elizabethan courtier Sir Philip Sidney.

Q. 78. Only a small proportion of medieval books survive, large numbers having been destroyed in:

A. The Anglo-Saxon Conquest beginning in the 1450s
B. The Norman Conquest of 1066
C. The Dissolution of the Monasteries in the 1530s
D. The wave of contempt for manuscripts that followed the beginning of printing in 1476

C. The Dissolution of the Monasteries in the 1530s
During the English Reformation under Henry VIII, monastery libraries were broken up and many priceless manuscripts were lost.

Q. 79. Sarojini Naidu is chiefly a _____ poet.

A. Narrative
B. Epic
C. Lyric
D. Satirical

C. Lyric
Known as the “Nightingale of India,” Sarojini Naidu was celebrated for her lyrical and musical poetry.

Q. 80. The study of which words occur together, and their frequency of co-occurrence:

A. Connotation
B. Collocation
C. Implication
D. Location

B. Collocation
Collocation refers to the habitual juxtaposition of a particular word with another word or words with a frequency greater than chance.

Q. 81. Newly released book in 2020, “The Pandemic Century” is written by which author?

A. David Page
B. Anthony Mercy
C. Mark Honigsbaum
D. Mark Bloomberg

C. Mark Honigsbaum
The Pandemic Century: One Hundred Years of Panic, Hysteria, and Hubris is a 2019 book by medical historian Mark Honigsbaum.

Q. 82. On 13 August 2018, the _____ National Assembly of Pakistan took oath.

A. 12th
B. 13th
C. 15th
D. 16th

C. 15th
The members elected in the 2018 Pakistani general election formed the 15th National Assembly.

Q. 83. All carnivorous plants:

A. Are parasites
B. Depend on animals as a source of carbon
C. Are incapable of photosynthesis
D. Obtain supplemental nitrogen from animals

D. Obtain supplemental nitrogen from animals
Carnivorous plants typically grow in nitrogen-poor soil and supplement their nutrients by trapping and digesting insects.

Q. 84. Structure of DNA was discovered by _____ .

A. James Watson
B. Samuel Morse
C. Edward Jenner
D. Louis Pasteur

A. James Watson
James Watson and Francis Crick famously published their discovery of the double helix structure of DNA in 1953.

Q. 85. Transistor was invented by:

A. Bardeen
B. Thomson
C. Edison
D. Faraday

A. Bardeen
John Bardeen, along with Walter Brattain and William Shockley, invented the transistor at Bell Labs in 1947.

Q. 86. The term “Double Fault” is associated with which of the following games?

A. Badminton
B. Squash
C. Tennis
D. Polo

C. Tennis
In tennis, a double fault occurs when a server fails to get either of their two serves into the correct service box.

Q. 87. Qantas is an airline of _____ .

A. Hong Kong
B. Russia
C. Australia
D. Germany

C. Australia
Qantas is the flag carrier of Australia, its name originally being an acronym for “Queensland and Northern Territory Aerial Services.”

Q. 88. The country Panama is situated at:

A. North America
B. Europe
C. South America
D. Africa

A. North America
Panama is located in Central America, which is geographically part of the continent of North America.

Q. 89. Between whom the Charter of Medina was concluded?

A. Muslims and Jews
B. Muslims and non-Arabs
C. Muslims and Jews & other non-Muslims
D. None of these

C. Muslims and Jews & other non-Muslims
The Charter of Medina was a formal agreement between the Prophet Muhammad and the significant tribés and families of Yathrib (later Medina), including Muslims, Jews, and pagans.

Q. 90. Which cousin of Holy Prophet (PBUH) was Mufassar-e-Quran?

A. Hamza-ibn-e-Abbas
B. Abdullah-ibn-e-Abbas
C. Taha-ibn-e-Abbas
D. None of these

B. Abdullah-ibn-e-Abbas
Abdullah ibn Abbas was a cousin of the Prophet Muhammad and is revered as one of the greatest early scholars of Qur’anic exegesis (Tafsir).

Q. 91. What is the shortcut key to split a table in MS Word?

A. Ctrl + Alt + Enter
B. Ctrl + Shift + Enter
C. Alt + Shift + Enter
D. Alt + Space + Enter

B. Ctrl + Shift + Enter
This keyboard shortcut allows you to split a single table into two separate tables at the cursor’s current row.

Q. 92. In MS Word 2016, ‘Equations’ option are available in _____.

A. Home
B. Layout
C. References
D. Insert

D. Insert
The Equation Editor tool is located under the “Symbols” group on the Insert tab of the ribbon.

Q. 93. 4×9/(144)1/2 = ?

A. 3
B. 2/7
C. 1/2
D. 1/3

A. 3
(144)1/2 is the square root of 144, which is 12. So the equation is 36 / 12 = 3.

Q. 94. Rahim bought a shirt for Rs.350 and sold it Rs.300. How much loss did he get?

A. Rs. 40
B. Rs. 50
C. Rs. 20
D. Rs. 80

B. Rs. 50
The loss is the buying price minus the selling price (350 – 300 = 50).

Q. 95. Sedimentary rocks are:

A. Porous
B. Hard
C. Rough
D. Brittle

A. Porous
Sedimentary rocks are formed from the accumulation of sediments and often have pore spaces, allowing them to hold water.

Q. 96. Pampelonne Beach is a beach of:

A. Germany
B. France
C. Italy
D. UK

B. France
Pampelonne is a famous beach located near Saint-Tropez on the French Riviera.

Q. 97. Indicate the coldest city of Pakistan:

A. Ziarat
B. Murree
C. Swat
D. Ayubia

A. Ziarat
Ziarat, located in Balochistan, is known for its cold winters and juniper forests.

Q. 98. Brahma Samaj was developed and modified by:

A. Gandhi
B. Nehru
C. Keshab Chandra Sen
D. None of these

C. Keshab Chandra Sen
While founded by Ram Mohan Roy, Keshab Chandra Sen was a key leader who significantly developed the Brahmo Samaj movement.

Q. 99. اتنے بڑے جلسے میں نوے فی صد حاضری ہے۔” اس جملے میں “فی صد” کیا ہے؟

(A) سابقہ (Prefix)
(B) لاحقہ (Suffix)
(C) علامتِ اضافت (Sign of possession)
(D) اسمِ حالیہ (Present participle)

B. لاحقہ (Suffix)
“فی صد” (fi sad), meaning percent, functions as a suffix modifying the number “نوے” (ninety).

Q. 100. کالے کوسوں” محاورہ ہے، اس کے معنی کیا ہیں؟

(A) بہت دور (Very far)
(B) ناپید (Extinct/non-existent)
(C) بہت قریب (Very near)
(D) بہت زیادہ (A lot)

(A) بہت دور (Very far)
The Urdu idiom “کالے کوسوں” (kaale koson) is used to describe a very great distance.

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